Certified Associate In Project Management (CAPM)
TestPrep Academy
Exam: CAPM
Question: 1 / 55
90:00
Identify the outputs of the Conduct Procurements process. Choose 3.
A. Change requests
B. Procurement documents
C. Agreements
D. Advertising
E. Selected sellers
Which of the following is
NOT
an emerging practice for project communications management?
A. Increased use of social computing
B. Inclusion of stakeholders in project reviews
C. Exclusion of stakeholders from project meetings
D. Diversified approaches to communication
Which input to the Manage Project Team process should be used to identify who is responsible for resolving something that is in dispute between stakeholders?
A. Project staff assignments
B. Issue log
C. Organizational process assets
D. Human resource management plan
A project manager is currently performing variance analysis as part of the Control Schedule process. At this stage of the project, the project manager has determined that the planned value is $182,000, the actual costs are $132,500, and the project has currently earned $165,000. What is the SPI at this stage of the project?
A. -$17,000
B. 1.25
C. $32,500
D. 0.91
Which Process Group focuses on progressive elaboration?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Automated reporting on KPIs is part of which tools and techniques?
A. Force field analysis
B. Regression analysis
C. Change control tools
D. Project management information system
Which chart type is especially suitable for clarifying roles and responsibilities in cross-departmental projects?
A. Organizational breakdown structure (OBS)
B. RACI matrix
C. Role-responsibility-authority forms
D. Work breakdown structure (WBS)
Which Process Group contains the process used to perform assessments of project team members?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Closing
Which component of the project management plan would most likely be used as an input to the Develop Schedule process?
A. Activity list
B. Activity attributes
C. Resource calendar
D. Scope baseline
What is the main output of the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
A. Risk management plan
B. Project management plan updates
C. Project documents updates
D. Risk register
You are in the process of planning cost management for your project. You need to develop detailed project costs from the preapproved financial resources. Where can you locate this information?
A. Project management plan
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project charter
D. Enterprise environmental factors
What is used during the Define Scope process to identify different approaches that can be used to perform the work required to achieve the project goals?
A. Multicriteria decision analysis
B. Context diagrams
C. Product analysis
D. Alternatives analysis
In terms of project stakeholder management processes, what is the purpose of frequent interaction with stakeholders throughout the project?
A. To keep track of adjustments to be implemented at the end of the project life cycle
B. To lower project costs
C. To develop project objectives
D. To outline how important the contributions of project team members are to the project's success
Which output of the Plan Quality Management process details quality requirements that may need to be updated?
A. Checklists
B. Quality metrics
C. Quality management plan
D. Scope baseline
You are estimating a schedule activity and using a triangular distribution as there is insufficient historical information available. You have been given an optimistic estimate of 26 days, a pessimistic estimate of 52 days, and a most likely estimate of 33 days from a project team member. What is the estimated duration for this activity?
A. 37 days
B. 33 days
C. 36 days
D. 35 days
What is the primary function of the project manager?
A. The person designated by an organization to manage a functional or business unit.
B. The person designated by an organization to provide the financial resources, so the team can carry out the project objectives.
C. The person designated by an organization to ensure the day to day functions of a business are efficient.
D. The person designated by an organization to lead the team achieving the project objectives.
Which process enables the allocation of clear responsibilities for each work unit that is required by the project?
A. Define Activities
B. Develop Schedule
C. Estimate Activity Resources
D. Create WBS
Which tool or technique uses political awareness to manage stakeholders' expectations?
A. Meetings
B. Communication skills
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Ground rules
Which of the following are a tailoring consideration for project communications management? Choose 3.
A. The location of physical resources
B. The organization's knowledge resources
C. The language of team members
D. The available communications technology
Identify the first step in the project scope management process.
A. Define the scope
B. Create the Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
C. Plan the scope management
D. Collect the requirements
Which process uses approved change requests resulting in modifications to a deliverable?
A. Control Quality
B. Validate Scope
C. Direct and Manage Project Work
D. Conduct Procurements
All of the following are common sections that can be found in the schedule management plan
EXCEPT
:
A. Project calendar
B. Measurement units
C. Control thresholds
D. Performance measurement
During the quantitative risk analysis process, which document provides an understanding of how project estimates were reached?
A. Schedule forecasts
B. Assumption log
C. Duration estimates
D. Basis of estimates
Which tool or technique of the Develop Project Team process focuses on the forming, storming, norming, performing, and adjourning stages of development?
A. Training
B. Team-building activities
C. Interpersonal skills
D. Personnel assessment tools
When comparing management to leadership which statement refers to an important characteristic of management that a project manager can possess?
A. Doing the right things
B. Asking how and when questions
C. Focusing on the organization’s vision
D. Inspiring trust in others
What are three elements found in the project charter?
A. Assigned project manager, risk response strategies, and the summary budget
B. Project sponsor, assumptions, and the stakeholder register
C. Project approval requirements, risk response strategies, and the summary budget
D. Project justification, high-level risks, and the stakeholder list
Which Process Group contains the processes required to align the purpose of the project with the expectations of the stakeholders?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Which results from the Define Activities process are used to sequence the project activities?
A. Milestone list, resource calendars, and the risk register
B. Activity attributes, activity list, and the milestone list
C. Milestone list, resource calendars, and the scope baseline
D. Activity list, milestone list, and the scope baseline
Which process is responsible for carrying out the activities used to confirm that the project results conform to the requirements?
A. Monitor and Control Project Work
B. Close Project or Phase
C. Control Scope
D. Validate Scope
You are working on a project that is designing a prototype for a new model of trucks. The current project stage is progressing as follows: the earned value is $655,000, the actual cost is $625,000, the planned value is $640,000, and the estimate to complete is $129,000. What is the current cost variance for the project?
A. $15,000
B. 1.02
C. $30,000
D. 1.05
Identify the tools and techniques used in the Plan Stakeholder Engagement process. Choose 3.
A. Stakeholder analysis
B. Meetings
C. Expert judgment
D. Data gathering
Which of the following is an output of the monitor communications process?
A. Organizational process assets
B. Work performance information
C. Project communications artifacts
D. The communications management plan
Which input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process contains useful information from risk databases available to the industry?
A. Risk register
B. Risk management plan
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Organizational process assets
What is used during the Control Quality process to detect errors before a product is delivered to the customer?
A. Inspection
B. Attribute sampling
C. Variables sampling
D. Prevention
Which type of contract involves the buyer reimbursing the seller for the seller’s allowable costs, and the seller earning their profit if they meet defined performance criteria?
A. FFP
B. CPFF
C. CPAF
D. CPIF
Which document can be used to indicate when risk responses need to be adjusted?
A. Lessons learned
B. Work performance information
C. Change log
D. Issue log
What is used during the Determine Budget process to ensure planned expenditures do not exceed the amount of funds that are committed to the project at any point in time?
A. Funding limit reconciliation
B. Reserve analysis
C. Historical information review
D. Cost aggregation
Which output of Plan Procurement Management describes how a project team will acquire goods and services from outside the performing organization?
A. Source selection criteria
B. Bid documents
C. Procurement statement of work
D. Procurement management plan
Which of the following are characteristics of agile approaches in project scope management? Choose 3.
A. A comprehensive scope is determined and approved at different stages of the project life cycle
B. The focus is on improving the process for determining the scope
C. The project deliverables are established at the start of the project
D. The deliverables are established throughout the project
All of the following are outputs of the Control Quality process
EXCEPT
:
A. Work performance information
B. Quality control measurements
C. Change requests
D. Accepted deliverables
Which statement accurately describes the benefits of the Close Project or Phase process?
A. It includes formal acceptance of the project deliverables and allows the project manager to evaluate the effectiveness of the risk processes. It also allows the organization's project team members to begin work on new projects or other assignments.
B. It includes formal acceptance of the project deliverables, allows the project manager to evaluate the effectiveness of the risk processes, and includes lessons learned gathered throughout the project.
C. It includes formal acceptance of the project deliverables and provides an official ending for the project work. It also allows the organization's project team members to begin work on new projects or other assignments.
D. It provides an official ending for the project work and includes lessons learned gathered throughout the project. It also allows the organization's project team members to begin work on new projects or other assignments.
Which Process Group includes the Validate Scope process?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Initiating
Which document defines the initial intentions of a project?
A. The project statement of work
B. The agreement
C. The business case
D. The project charter
Which output is a result of decisions made by the CCB during a current project?
A. Procurement documents
B. Stakeholder register
C. Project charter
D. Approved change requests
Which of the following
BEST
identifies work performance information?
A. The number of defects encountered
B. The status of deliverables
C. Activity schedule dates
D. Electronic dashboards
Identify the inputs of the Control Procurements process. Choose 3.
A. Organizational process assets
B. Work performance data
C. Agreements
D. Seller proposals
E. Change requests
Which statements are a key concepts in project cost management? Choose 3.
A. The way in which stakeholders calculate project costs
B. The price of the resources needed to finish all project tasks
C. The prospective financial performance of the product
D. The effect that project decisions have on the cost of using and maintaining the product
Which document includes significant events that have zero duration?
A. Project calendar
B. Risk register
C. Activity list
D. Milestone list
Which tool or technique is used by the Collect Requirements process to quickly accumulate information from a large number of geographically separated stakeholders?
A. Questionnaires and surveys
B. Benchmarking
C. Prototypes
D. Focus groups
Program management is described by all of the following
EXCEPT
:
A. A series of repetitive undertakings
B. A centralized way to manage a series of related projects to achieve strategic benefits
C. A collection of projects and other work that have been grouped together to meet strategic business objectives
D. A group of related projects coordinated together that has benefits above managing the project individually
Which statement describes an activity that the project manager may be involved in prior to a project’s initiation?
A. Collecting requirements for a new product
B. Being involved with follow-on activities after realizing business benefits
C. Assisting with business case development
D. Identifying key stakeholders
Which document supplies the information required to plan proper methods of engaging the people or groups that may influence the project?
A. Stakeholder register
B. Bid documents
C. Communications management plan
D. Project charter
What is used during the Create WBS process to assign identification codes to the WBS components?
A. Decomposition
B. Context diagrams
C. Dependency determination and integration
D. Product analysis
While in the process of estimating costs for a complex project activity, you obtain a range of estimates from an expert in the industry. The expert states that while the activity could be completed for as little as $300, it is possible it could cost as much as $1200 to complete. They also tell you that from past experience the activity typically costs $450. What is the beta distribution estimate for this activity?
A. $450
B. $650
C. $550
D. $1,200
Which project resource management process ensures the availability of physical resources assigned to a project?
A. Plan resource management
B. Estimate activity resources
C. Acquire resources
D. Control resources
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