Certified Associate In Project Management (CAPM)
TestPrep Academy
Exam: CAPM
Question: 1 / 15
90:00
Which input of the Control Scope process is used to determine the impact that deviations in the agreed project scope will have on the project objectives?
A. Requirements traceability matrix
B. Work performance data
C. Requirements documentation
D. Project management plan
Hint
The requirements traceability matrix is one of the inputs to the Control Scope process. The requirements traceability matrix is a grid that links product requirements from their origin to the deliverables that satisfy them. It is used to determine the impact that deviations in the agreed project scope will have on project objectives.
The requirements documentation is an input to the Control Scope process. The requirements documentation identifies how project requirements will be managed. This information will be used when confirming there were no deviations in the agreed scope. However, it is not used to determine the impact that deviations in the agreed project scope will have on the project objectives.
Work performance data is one of the inputs to the Control Scope process. However, it is not used to determine the impact that deviations in the agreed project scope will have on the project objectives. Work performance data is the raw observations and measurements identified during activities being performed to carry out the project work.
The project management plan is one of the inputs to the Control Scope process. However, it is not used to determine the impact that deviations in the agreed project scope will have on the project objectives. Components of the project management plan that are used to control the project scope are as follows:
- the scope baseline
- the scope management plan
- the change management plan
- the configuration management plan
- the requirements management plan
- the performance measurement baseline
When planning procurement management, which contract type is used as an input when requirements are thoroughly defined and the scope is not expected to change?
A. Lump sum contract
B. Time and material (T&M) contract
C. Cost-reimbursable contract
D. Fixed-price contract
Hint
Fixed-price contracts are used when requirements are clearly defined and there are no major changes anticipated for the scope. These contracts stipulate a fixed total price for the specified product, service, or outcome. The three types of fixed-price contracts are firm fixed price, fixed price incentive fee, and fixed price with economic price adjustments.
Cost-reimbursable contracts include details on cost repayment to the seller for expenses incurred. These contracts are used when crucial changes are anticipated in the scope of work.
T&M contracts combine features from cost-reimbursable and fixed-price contracts, and are used when the exact statement of work cannot be promptly provided.
Lump sum contracts are contract payment types that are used to identify a procurement strategy. This contract is an output of the planning procurement management process.
What results from sequencing activities in your project?
A. Duration estimates
B. Project schedule
C. Project schedule network diagrams
D. Schedule baseline
Hint
Project schedule network diagrams are created during the Sequence Activities process. The project schedule network diagram is a graphical representation of the logical relationships among the project schedule activities.
Duration estimates are a result of the Estimate Activity Durations process, not the Sequence Activities process. A duration estimate is the quantitative assessment of the likely amount or outcome for the duration of the activity.
The schedule baseline is a result from the Develop Schedule process, not the Sequence Activities process. The schedule baseline is the approved version of a schedule model.
The project schedule is a result from the Develop Schedule process, not the Sequence Activities process. The project schedule is an output of a schedule model that presents linked activities with planned dates, durations, milestones, and resources.
Which Process Group is the Perform Quality Assurance process performed as part of?
A. Planning
B. Executing
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing
Hint
The Perform Quality Assurance process is performed as part of the Executing Process Group. Perform Quality Assurance is used to monitor the results of quality assurance activities. It entails checking that processes used to create products meet the required standards, so it is part of managing project quality. Its focus is on continuous improvements to the project.
The Perform Quality Assurance process is not performed within the Planning Process Group. The Planning Process Group contains the processes that are performed to:
- establish the scope of the project
- refine the objectives
- define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve
The Perform Quality Assurance process is not performed within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group contains the processes that are used to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project. The processes are also used to identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required, and initiate the corresponding changes.
The Perform Quality Assurance process is not performed within the Closing Process Group. The Closing Process Group contains the processes used to finalize all activities across all Process Groups to formally close a project or phase.
The following are key functions or principles of general management in the organization
EXCEPT
:
A. Support of project manager
B. Unity of direction
C. Unity of command
D. Discipline of action
Hint
The primary function of a PMO is to support the project manager. This occurs in a variety of ways including selecting and developing a project management methodology, coordinating communication over multiple projects, coaching, mentoring, training, and oversight. This is not one of the key functions or principles of management in the organization.
Management elements are one of the factors that affect the outcome of a project. Unity of command is one of the key principles of management in the organization. An example of this principle would be to only allow one person to issue orders to an individual with respect to an activity or task.
Management elements are one of the factors that affect the outcome of a project. Unity of direction is one of the key principles of management in the organization. An example of this principle would be to have a single plan and leader for a collection of activities that share an objective.
Management elements are one of the factors that affect the outcome of a project. Discipline of action is one of the key principles of management in the organization. An example of this principle would include having respect for authority, people, and rules of your organization.
Collect Requirements is performed as part of which Knowledge Area?
A. Project Time Management
B. Project Scope Management
C. Project Integration Management
D. Project Quality Management
Hint
The Collect Requirements process is performed as part of the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area. The Project Scope Management Knowledge Area includes the processes required to ensure that the project includes all the work required, and only the work required, to complete the project successfully.
The Collect Requirements process is not performed as part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area. The Project Integration Management Knowledge Area includes the processes and activities needed to identify, define, combine, unify, and coordinate the various processes and project management activities within the project management Process Groups.
The Collect Requirements process is not performed as part of the Project Time Management Knowledge Area. The Project Time Management Knowledge Area includes the processes required to manage the timely completion of the project.
The Collect Requirements process is not performed as part of the Project Quality Management Knowledge Area. The Project Quality Management Knowledge Area includes the processes and activities of the performing organization that determine quality policies, objectives, and responsibilities. This ensures that the project will satisfy the needs for which it was undertaken.
Which document includes a glossary of commonly used terms?
A. Procurement management plan
B. Activity list
C. Issue log
D. Communications management plan
Hint
The communications management plan is a component of the project, program, or portfolio management plan that describes how, when, and by whom information about the project will be administered and disseminated. It includes a glossary of commonly used terms.
The procurement management plan helps guide the project team in purchasing equipment, materials, and services from an outside organization. The procurement management plan includes any prequalified users identified, the timeline for the most important procurement activities, procurement related roles, and so on. It does not include a glossary of commonly used terms.
The issue log is a project document used to document and monitor elements under discussion or in dispute between project stakeholders. The issue log does not include a glossary of commonly used terms.
Activity list is a documented tabulation of schedule activities that shows the activity description, activity identifier, and a sufficiently detailed scope of work description. This allows the project team members to understand what work is to be performed. The activity list does not include a glossary of commonly used terms.
Which input is used by the Plan Risk Responses process includes the prioritized risks?
A. Risk management plan
B. Risk register
C. Work performance data
D. Work performance reports
Hint
The risk register is one of the inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process. The risk register records all identified risks, and based on analysis, prioritizes the identified risks. Knowing the priority level helps to plan the appropriate risk responses.
The risk management plan is one of the inputs to the Plan Risk Responses process. However, it does not include the prioritized risks. The risk management plan identifies how risk management will be performed on the current project. It contains risk management roles and their responsibilities.
Work performance reports are an input to the Monitor Risks process, not the Plan Risk Responses process. Work performance reports present work performance data that has been captured in previous processes. Three common formats for work performance reports are bar charts, S-curves, and summary tables.
Work performance data is an input to the Monitor Risks process. However, the work performance data is not used as an input to the Plan Risk Responses process. The work performance data includes data about the project status. For example, this can include risks that have occurred, risk responses that have been applied, active risks, and closed risks.
Which Process Group contains the processes that are used to normalize variances?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Closing
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Hint
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group contains the processes that are used to track progress, review performance, regulate and control variances, and change the project management plan if required. The main objective is to ensure that problems have been identified and resolved so the project can meet its goals.
The Planning Process Group does not contain the processes that are used to regulate and control variances.
The Planning Process Group contains the processes used to:
- establish the scope of the project
- refine the objectives
- define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve
The Executing Process Group does not contain the processes that are used to regulate and control variances. The Executing Process Group contains the processes used to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications.
The Closing Process Group does not contain the processes that are used to regulate and control variances. The Closing Process Group contains the processes that are used to finalize all activities across all Process Groups to formally close a project or phase.
Identify a quality improvement strategy used to establish continual improvement in project quality management.
A. Inspection
B. Quality audits
C. The plan-do-check-act (PDCA) cycle
D. Benchmarking
Hint
The PDCA cycle is the core of quality improvement strategies when establishing continual improvement. Along with strategies such as Six Sigma, and Total Quality Management (TQM), it is used to refine the quality of project management and the deliverables.
Benchmarking is a data-gathering technique used when planning quality management. It provides a starting point for evaluating performance but does not establish continual improvement in project quality management.
Quality audits are used to manage quality by determining if best practices are implemented in project activities, for example. The PDCA cycle is used to establish continual improvement in project quality management.
Inspection is used in the quality control process to verify if a product meets required standards. The PDCA cycle is used to establish continual improvement in project quality management.
Which process in the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group contains the activities used to ensure that completed deliverables are formally accepted?
A. Validate Scope
B. Control Communications
C. Control Procurements
D. Monitor and Control Project Work
Hint
The Validate Scope process is the Project Scope Management Knowledge Area process within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group. Validating scope involves making sure completed deliverables are formally accepted and making scope changes when required.
The Monitor and Control Project Work process does not contain the activities used to ensure that completed deliverables are formally accepted. It contains the activities used to monitor the project work to ensure it complies with the project management plan.
The Control Procurements process does not contain the activities used to ensure that completed deliverables are formally accepted. It contains the activities that are used to manage the contracts and relationships between buyers and sellers, and review and document the sellers' performance.
The Control Communications process does not contain the activities used to ensure that completed deliverables are formally accepted. It contains the activities that are used to consolidate information about the results of monitoring and controlling processes and communicate them to the relevant stakeholders.
You are in the process of planning cost management for your project. You need to develop detailed project costs from the preapproved financial resources. Where can you locate this information?
A. Project management plan
B. Organizational process assets
C. Project charter
D. Enterprise environmental factors
Hint
The project charter is one of the inputs to the Plan Cost Management process. The project charter is a document issued by the project initiator or sponsor that formally authorizes the existence of a project. The project charter also provides the project manager with the authority to apply organizational resources to project activities. The project charter includes the preapproved financial resources, which is used during the Plan Cost Management process to develop a detailed list of project costs. The project charter also contains any approval requirements that may affect how project costs are managed.
The project management plan does not contain the preapproved financial resources. Elements of the project management plan that are used by the Plan Cost Management process include the schedule management plan and the risk management plan.
The enterprise environmental factors do not contain the preapproved financial resources. Some of the enterprise environmental factors related to the Plan Cost Management process include information related to the organization's culture, market conditions, published commercial information, and the project management information system.
The organizational process assets do not contain the preapproved financial resources. Some organizational process assets related to the Plan Cost Management process include financial controls and procedures, historical information, and existing cost estimating policies and procedures.
You are working on a project that is designing a new order processing system. The project is currently progressing as follows: the earned value is $234,000, the actual cost is $215,000, the planned value is $225,000, and the estimate to complete is $105,000. What is the current schedule performance index for the project?
A. 1.09
B. $9,000
C. $19,000
D. 1.04
Hint
The formula used to calculate the schedule performance index (SPI) is SPI = EV / PV. Applying the values provided in the scenario to the formula results in an SPI of 1.04.
SPI = 234,000 / 225,000
SPI = 1.04
An SPI value over 1 indicates more work has been completed than was originally planned.
The value 1.09 is the current cost performance index (CPI) for the project, not the SPI. The formula used to calculate CPI is CPI = EV / AC.
The value of $9,000 is the current schedule variance (SV) for the project, not the SPI. The formula used to calculate SV is SV = EV - PV.
The value of $19,000 is the current cost variance (CV) for the project, not the SPI. The formula used to calculate CV is CV = EV - AC.
Which process group is responsible for preventing the circumvention of integrated change control?
A. Monitoring and Controlling
B. Planning
C. Executing
D. Closing
Hint
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group contains the activities used to prevent the circumvention of integrated change control. It is also used for tracking, reviewing, and regulating the progress and performance of the project.
The Planning Process Group is not responsible for preventing the circumvention of integrated change control.
The Planning Process Group carries out the actions used to:
- establish the scope of the project
- refine the objectives
The Executing Process Group is not responsible for preventing the circumvention of integrated change control. The Executing Process Group carries out the actions used to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications.
The Closing Process Group is not responsible for preventing the circumvention of integrated change control. The Closing Process Group carries out the actions that are used to finalize all activities across all Process Groups to formally close a project or phase.
In which type of organization would a project manager carry the most authoritative power?
A. Balanced matrix organization
B. Weak matrix organization
C. Projectized organization
D. Strong matrix organization
Hint
A project manager would have difficulty in this type of organization, because functional managers carry most of the power. The project manager would need to consult the functional managers for major decisions.
Project managers carry most of the power in a strong matrix organization, and would not have much difficulty during the develop project team process. This option would be the next best choice after projectized.
The project manager would have the most authoritative power in a projectized organization. In a projectized organization, most of the organization's human resources are involved in project work, and traditionally report directly to the project manager.
The following is a list of the different organizational structures, listed in order from the most to the least amount of power for the project manager:
- Projectized
- Strong matrix
- Balanced matrix
- Weak matrix
- Functional
In a balanced matrix organization, the power is shared between the project manager and the functional manager.
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