Certified Associate In Project Management (CAPM)
TestPrep Academy
Exam: CAPM
Question: 1 / 15
90:00
Which of the following is an output of the develop team process?
A. Resource requirements
B. Project team assignments
C. Team performance assessments
D. Work performance reports
Hint
The purpose of the develop team process is to boost project performance by improving competencies, teamwork, and the team environment as a whole. Team performance assessments help achieve this by evaluating the team's effectiveness. For example, it can help the project management team identify areas where specific training or mentoring is required.
Work performance reports are used to make decisions, perform actions, or increase awareness, and are an input for the Manage Team process.
Resource requirements determine the types and quantities of resources required for the project. They are an output of the estimate activity resources process.
Project team assignments record each team member's role and responsibilities and are a product of the acquire resources process.
Which tool or technique is used by the Create WBS process?
A. Alternatives analysis
B. Precedence diagramming method
C. Product analysis
D. Decomposition
Hint
Decomposition is one of the main techniques used in the Create WBS process. Decomposition is used to divide and subdivide the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts.
Product analysis is a tool used in the Define Scope process, not the Create WBS process. It is used to identify tangible deliverables based on the high-level product description.
Alternatives analysis is a technique used in the Estimate Activity Resources process, not the Create WBS process. It is used to evaluate identified options to select which alternative options or approaches to use to execute and perform the work of the project.
The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is a technique used in the Sequence Activities process, not the Create WBS process. PDM is used to construct a schedule model in which activities are represented by nodes and are graphically linked by one or more logical relationships. This is to show the sequence in which the activities are to be performed.
Which of the following documents is helpful for establishing risk thresholds during the plan risk management process?
A. Risk report
B. Risk register
C. Issue log
D. Stakeholder register
Hint
The stakeholder register can be used as an input for the plan risk management process. It provides an overview of the project roles of stakeholders and their attitude towards risk. This is especially helpful for establishing risk management roles and responsibilities and for setting risk thresholds for the project.
The risk register contains information about identified risks, such as the risk owners and agreed-upon risk responses.
The issue log is used to check for updates on open issues and whether any issues require updates to the risk register.
The risk report summarizes the individual project risks and the overall level of project risk.
How do the top two percent of project managers distinguish themselves from other project managers?
A. Superior forecasting skills
B. Superior planning skills
C. Superior communication skills
D. Superior technical skills
Hint
According to their managers and team members, the top two percent of project managers distinguish themselves from other project managers through the following characteristics:
- Superior communication skills
- Superior relationship skills
- Displaying a positive attitude
In the context of a project, technical skills refer to the ability of a project manager to effectively apply their knowledge of project management to deliver the required project outcomes. Technical skills are not what distinguishes the top two percent of project managers from other project managers.
Forecasting skills are usually used in the context of forecasting costs, which comes from many years of experience working on projects and would be considered a technical skill. Forecasting skills are not what distinguishes the top two percent of project managers from other project managers.
Planning skills would be considered a technical skill. Planning is one of the five process groups. Planning skills are not what distinguishes the top two percent of project managers from other project managers.
You are working on a project that is designing a new office building. The current project stage is progressing as follows: the earned value is $1,255,000, the actual cost is $1,329,000, the planned value is $1,280,000, and the estimate to complete is $325,000. What is the current cost performance index for the project?
A. -$25,000
B. 0.98
C. -$74,000
D. 0.94
Hint
The formula used to calculate cost performance index (CPI) is CPI = EV / AC. Applying the values provided in the scenario to the formula results in a CPI of 0.94.
CPI = EV / AC
CPI = $1,255,000 / $1,329,000
CPI = 0.94
A CPI value under 1 indicates that the project has spent more funds to date than was originally planned.
The value 0.98 is the current schedule performance index (SPI) for the project, not the CPI. The formula used to calculate the SPI is SPI = EV / PV.
The value of -$74,000 is the current cost variance (CV) for the project, not the CPI. The formula used to calculate CV is CV = EV - AC.
The value of -$25,000 is the current schedule variance (SV) for the project, not the CPI. The formula used to calculate SV is SV = EV - PV.
Identifying Stakeholders is performed as part of which process group?
A. Executing
B. Planning
C. Initiating
D. Monitoring and Controlling
Hint
Identify Stakeholders is part of the Initiating Process Group. Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying the people, groups, or organizations that could affect or be affected by a decision, activity, or outcome of the project. It involves analyzing and documenting relevant information regarding their interests, involvement, interdependencies, influence, and potential impact on project success.
The Planning Process Group includes the processes required to establish the scope of the project and refine the objectives. It also includes the processes that define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project was undertaken to achieve. Identifying Stakeholders is part of the Initiating Process Group, not the Planning Process Group.
The Executing Process Group includes the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications. Identify Stakeholders is part of the Initiating Process Group, not the Executing Process Group.
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes the processes required to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project. It also includes the processes to identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required and initiate the corresponding changes. Identify Stakeholders is part of the Initiating Process Group, not the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group.
Which is
NOT
a characteristic of adaptive approaches in project schedule management?
A. Used for the complete delivery life cycle of enterprise-wide systems in big organizations
B. Perform work and review results in short periods
C. Use on-demand scheduling methods
D. Provide swift feedback on whether the deliverables are appropriate
Hint
This is a characteristic of an approach that uses a combination of predictive and adaptive techniques. In big organizations, a range of practices from a variety of approaches is needed to address the delivery life cycle of enterprise-wide systems.
Adaptive approaches complete work, review the results, and apply changes in short durations.
Adaptive approaches provide speedy feedback on the suitability of the deliverables.
Adaptive approaches can manifest as on-demand, pull-based scheduling.
Which tool or technique is used by the Monitor Risks process to determine whether there are enough funds set aside to cover the amount of risk remaining in the project?
A. Meetings
B. Reserve analysis
C. Technical performance analysis
D. Audits
Hint
Reserve analysis involves comparing the remaining contingency reserves for a project with the remaining risks. This is to determine whether the reserves are sufficient to see you through to the end of the project. Throughout the execution of the project, some risks may occur, with positive or negative impacts on the budget or schedule. Reserve analysis protects the budget and schedule by ensuring contingency reserves are adequate to cover these impacts.
Technical performance analysis is among the tools and techniques used by the Monitor Risks process. However, it is not used to determine whether there are enough funds set aside to cover the amount of risk remaining at any time in the project. Technical performance analysis compares schedule of technical achievement to the technical accomplishments that occur during project execution where deviations may indicate the potential impact from opportunities or threats.
Meetings is among the tools and techniques used by the Monitor Risks process and can be in the form of risk reviews. However, meetings are not used specifically to determine whether there are enough funds set aside to cover the amount of risk remaining at any time in the project. Meetings can be used for reviewing a range of risk topics including examining and documenting the effectiveness of risk responses for individual risks and the overall project risk.
Risk audits are among the tools and techniques used by the Monitor Risks process. However, risk audits are not used to determine whether there are enough funds set aside to cover the amount of risk remaining at any time in the project. Risk audits are used to assess the effectiveness of risk the risk management process.
Which input is used by the Plan Scope Management process to determine the approach that will be used to plan and manage the project scope?
A. Project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. Project management plan
D. Requirements documentation
Hint
The project management plan is one of the inputs to the Plan Scope Management process. It contains subsidiary plans that are used to create the scope management plan. The subsidiary plans also provide the information used to determine the approach that will be used to plan and manage the project scope.
The project charter is one of the inputs to the Plan Scope Management process. However, it does not contain the information used to determine the approach that will be used to plan and manage the project scope. The project charter is used by the Plan Scope Management process to provide a high-level project description and requirements along with any known assumptions and constraints.
The project scope statement is one of the inputs to the Create WBS process, not the Plan Scope Management process. The project scope statement provides a description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.
The requirements documentation is an input to the Control Scope process, not the Plan Scope Management process. The requirements documentation identifies what is desired by the project stakeholders. This information will be used when confirming if there are deviations in the agreed scope.
What is used by the Validate Scope process to identify the number of nonconformities related to the project requirements?
A. Work performance information
B. Accepted deliverables
C. Verified deliverables
D. Work performance data
Hint
Work performance data is an input of the Validate Scope process. Work performance data is the raw observations and measurements identified during activities being performed to carry out the project work. This data includes how well the project is conforming to project requirements. It also includes the number and severity of nonconformities.
Verified deliverables are an input to the Validate Scope process. However, they do not identify the number of nonconformities related to the project requirements. Verified deliverables are deliverables that have been checked to ensure that they adhere to the quality requirements as part of the Control Quality process.
Accepted deliverables are one of the outputs of the Validate Scope process. Deliverables are accepted when products, results, or capabilities produced by a project are validated by the project customer or sponsors as meeting their specified acceptance criteria.
Work performance information is an output of the Control Scope process. It is not an input to the Validate Scope process. Work performance information is the performance data collected from various controlling processes, analyzed in context, and integrated based on relationships across areas.
Which Process Group contains the processes required to align the purpose of the project with the expectations of the stakeholders?
A. Executing
B. Initiating
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Planning
Hint
One of the main objectives of the Initiating Process Group is to clarify the basic purpose of a project and identify who has an interest in the project outcome before detailed project planning goes ahead. This ensures the purpose of the project is aligned with the expectations of the stakeholders. The other main objective of the Initiating Process Group is to gain formal authorization to start a new project or project phase.
The Planning Process Group does not contain the processes required to align the purpose of the project with the expectations of the stakeholders. The Planning Process Group focuses on converting information about the project as a whole into a detailed outline of the steps needed to reach the project's objectives.
The Executing Process Group does not contain the processes required to align the purpose of the project with the expectations of the stakeholders. The Executing Process Group includes the processes for carrying out what is in the project management plan. Therefore, its purpose is to complete the work required to meet a project's objectives.
The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group does not contain the processes required to align the purpose of the project with the expectations of the stakeholders. The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group contains the processes used to track progress, review performance, regulate and control variances, and change the project management plan if required.
What is used during the Collect Requirements process to determine how to define and develop the project scope?
A. Project charter
B. Project scope statement
C. Requirements management plan
D. Scope management plan
Hint
The scope management plan is an input to the Collect Requirements process. The scope management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how the scope will be defined, developed, monitored, controlled, and verified. It is used during the Collect Requirements process to specify how project teams will determine how to define and develop the project scope.
The requirements management plan is an input to the Collect Requirements process. However, it is not used to determine how to define and develop the project scope. The requirements management plan is a component of the project management plan that describes how project requirements will be analyzed, documented, and collected.
The project charter is one of the inputs to the Collect Requirements process. However, it is not used to how to define and develop the project scope. The project charter is a document issued by the project sponsor that provides high-level project description and requirements to help develop the requirements in greater detail.
The project scope statement is one of the inputs to the Create WBS process, not the Collect Requirements process. The project scope statement provides a description of the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints.
Which output of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process would include updates to the lessons learned register?
A. Project documents updates
B. Enterprise environmental factors updates
C. Organizational process assets updates
D. Project management plan updates
Hint
Organizational process assets updates is not an output from the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process.
While project management plan updates is an output of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process, the lessons learned register is not part of the project management plan. Elements of the project management plan that may be updated include the communications management plan, the stakeholder engagement plan, and the resource management plan.
Project documents updates is an output of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process. The types of documents updated as part of this output include the issue log, lessons register, risk register, and stakeholder register.
Enterprise environmental factors updates is not an output of the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process, and they do not contain lessons learned register.
Which tool or technique of the Conduct Procurements process ensures that all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement?
A. Negotiation
B. Bidder conferences
C. Proposal evaluation
D. Market research
Hint
Bidder conferences are meetings with prospective sellers prior to the preparation of a bid or proposal to ensure that all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement. They are also known as contractor conferences, vendor conferences, or pre-bid conferences.
Negotiation is one of the key interpersonal and team skills used as part of the Conduct Procurements process. Procurement negotiations are used to clarify various terms of the purchases in order to reach a mutual agreement before signing the contract. They do not ensure that all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement.
Proposal evaluation is a data analysis technique used as part of the Conduct Procurements process. It is simply involves reviewing proposals provided by suppliers to support contract award decisions. They do not ensure that all prospective vendors have a clear and common understanding of the procurement.
Market research is a data gathering technique that involves gathering information at conferences, online reviews, and a variety of sources to identify market capabilities. This is a tool and technique of the Plan Procurement Management process, not the Conduct Procurements process.
Which input to the Manage Project Team process should be used to identify who is responsible for resolving something that is in dispute between stakeholders?
A. Project staff assignments
B. Issue log
C. Organizational process assets
D. Human resource management plan
Hint
The issue log is a project document that is used to document and monitor elements in question, or in dispute, between project stakeholders. It is used by the Manage Project Team process to identify who is responsible for resolving issues related to managing the project team. It is also used to track the progress of the issues being resolved.
The human resource management plan is not the best source to use when you need to identify who is responsible for resolving something that is in dispute between stakeholders. The human resource management plan includes information on how many people will be needed, the duration they will be needed for, and the skills they need to possess to achieve the project goals.
Project staff assignments are not the best source to use when you need to identify who is responsible for resolving something that is in dispute between stakeholders. Project staff assignments identify which people are assigned to the project team, and when they were assigned. Project staff assignments are published in the project team directory.
Organizational process assets (OPAs) are not the best source to use when you need to identify who is responsible for resolving something that is in dispute between stakeholders. OPAs provide organizational policies, processes, and procedures that are related to the Manage Project Team process.
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